AAB Medical Technologist (MT) – Immunology Practice Exam

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• Which reaction is caused by an IgG antibody binding to the surface of a red blood cell?
• What type of antigen is used in the RPR test?
• Which type of cells are involved in the adaptive immune response?
• What should be the result when controls are used to check for anticomplementary factors in complement fixation tests?
• Which component is destroyed during serum inactivation for the VDRL test?
• What does the antistreptolysin O (ASO) test measure in the patient's serum?
• What is a positive reaction in the antistreptolysin O (ASO) slide test?
• What is the role of B cells in the immune response?
• Which immunoglobulin class binds to mast cells and basophils?
• The rheumatoid factor latex slide test incorporates diluted patient's serum and latex coated with which component?
• Which method is used to serotype the herpes simplex virus (HSV)?
• What is the order of activation of complement components in the classical pathway?
• What feature is common in antibodies that helps them recognize a wide range of antigens?
• What is the most popular test for the diagnosis of Toxoplasma gondii?
• Which cells can live for a long time and provide immunological memory?
• Which immunoglobulin is primarily measured in the radioallergosorbent (RAST) test?
• Which type of cells ingest and destroy bacteria, damaged host cells, and tumor cells?
• Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of complement?
• Which immune disease is associated with congenital thymic hypoplasia and can be diagnosed through T-cell subset enumeration by flow cytometry?
• What plays an important role in making bacteria susceptible to osmotic lysis?
• In the enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), what can be attached to a solid phase support?
• Which of the following is a classic symptom of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
• Which B lymphocytes transform into cells that produce antibody molecules?
• Which immunoglobulin class is associated with a secretory component?
• Which defense mechanism involves engulfing foreign particles?
• Which type of substance is known to be the most potent antigen?
• Most antibodies migrate in which region during serum protein electrophoresis?
• Which test is less likely to be reactive in primary and early secondary syphilis?
• What is the primary purpose of the VDRL test in medical diagnostics?
• In the context of immunology, what does the term sensitization refer to?
• What is the serum:antigen ratio in any VDRL test?
• The FTA-ABS test is designed to identify what in the patient's serum?
• A positive anti-ribonucleoprotein (anti-RNP) test is indicative of which autoimmune condition?
• In the heterophil antibody test, how is the result reported?
• Where are B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes primarily produced in the body?
• Which cells are characterized by the presence of a surface immunoglobulin receptor?
• Which of the following syndromes would you expect to see recurrent infections due to deficient antibody production?
• The cryptococcal antigen test is replacing which traditional lab test?
• Patients with syphilis typically develop an antibody response to which of the following substances?
• Which substance is used to sensitize RBCs in the complement fixation test?
• Which organism shares cross-reactivity with antibodies to Brucella abortus?
• Which immunoglobulin increases during the convalescence phase of infection?
• Which of the following is a strong chemotactic factor as well as an anaphylatoxin?
• Which statement is NOT a limitation of monoclonal antibodies from a hybridoma?
• What is the main function of T helper cells in the immune response?
• What is the main function of natural killer cells in immune defense?
• What term is used to describe an immunoglobulin?
• What causes a prozone reaction?
• Which of the following is NOT a function of the complement system?
• What is a key characteristic of a weakly reactive VDRL test result?
• What is capable of eliciting an immune response?
• What type of antigen reacts with an antibody that it did not induce?
• Hybridomas are formed from which type of cells?
• How can cell-mediated immunity be transferred to a person with a normal immune system?
• How much does the antigen needle for the qualitative VDRL test deliver?
• Which fluorochrome emits red light at a wavelength of 580 nm?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of phagocytes?
• Which gene products are indicative of class I major histocompatibility complex?
• Which tumor marker is used to monitor ovarian cancer?
• What is the area of the immunoglobulin molecule referred to as the hinge region located between?
• Which condition typically occurs when there is an excess of antibody in a solution during immunological testing?
• Which immunoglobulin is a dimer?
• Which cells are responsible for turning off the production of antibodies?
• The combination of soluble antibody with soluble antigen to produce insoluble complexes is the principle of which method?
• In serology, what is the expected result of a titer test following successful vaccination?
• Which component is part of the body's first line of defense against infections?
• Which organs or systems are mainly responsible for producing specific lymphocytes and plasma cells in response to circulating antigens?
• Which is the first antibody to be produced in infections?
• In the context of infectious diseases, what is the significance of heterophil antibodies?
• What is often the primary specific laboratory finding in DiGeorge syndrome?
• Forssman antibodies can be absorbed by what type of antigen?
• What serves as the energy source for fluorescence microscopes?
• What is the primary function of polymorphonuclear white blood cells?
• Which of the following is the most common serological test for varicella zoster virus (VZV)?
• What is a true statement regarding the source of antibodies in the rheumatoid factor latex test?
• What virus is recognized as the causative agent of infectious mononucleosis?
• In which organ does the differentiation of T cells primarily occur?
• Receiving a vaccination exemplifies which type of immunity?
• Which cell type is primarily involved in the body's adaptive immune response?
• Which disease results from a defect in neutrophils and is characterized by recurrent bacterial infections?
• What immunoglobulin class is a good precipitin?
• What is the significance of a positive antistreptolysin O (ASO) test result?
• What do the determinants on an antigen primarily interact with?
• What is the outcome when dendritic cells present antigens via class II molecules?
• How often should needles used to deliver VDRL antigen be checked?
• What clinical feature might suggest a diagnosis of Scid over other immunodeficiencies?
• Which complement components are involved in the alternate pathway?
• In the secondary immune response, which immunoglobulin type increases rapidly?
• Which of the following is NOT associated with the major histocompatibility complex?
• Which serological method is routinely used for rubella testing?
• What is the advantage of using monoclonal antibodies in research?
• When a precipitation reaction is converted to an agglutination reaction by increasing the size of the antigen, what is the test referred to as?
• Which specific type of immunological testing is pivotal in diagnosing patients with suspected T-cell deficiencies?
• What is the end product of complement activation?
• What type of immune response is characterized by rapid antibody production and elevated levels following repeated exposure to an antigen?
• Which fluorescence pattern in the anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) test suggests active systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?
• When is the quantitative VDRL test performed?
• Which of the following is a diagnostic laboratory test for acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
• Which herpes simplex virus (HSV) can cause urogenital infections?
• Which type of Hepatitis is commonly associated with the consumption of raw or undercooked shellfish?
• Immunoelectrophoresis is primarily used to identify which of the following?
• What does the reported titer in a quantitative VDRL test represent?
• Which immune cells are responsible for the production of antibodies?
• What type of test is used to measure the strength of antibodies in response to an antigen?
• What is the principle behind hemagglutination inhibition?
• Which immunoglobulin can activate the complement system?
• What are the specific reactive sites on an antigen called?
• Which of the following is NOT a surface marker for T cells?
• Inactivation of sera for serological tests is performed for what purpose?
• What will occur to the RBCs in a negative complement fixation test?
• Which of the following conditions is NOT diagnosed by the presence of RF?
• What term is used to describe the ability of a clinical test to be positive in the presence of its homologous antigen?
• What is the type of media used in electroimmunodiffusion for the directed movement of antigen or antigen and antibody?
• The Widal and Weil-Felix tests are primarily used to detect which substances?
• In a serological serial dilution, what is the titer in tube #10 if tube #1 has 1 mL of the undiluted specimen?
• IgE is primarily associated with which type of immune response?
• How does IgG contribute to the immune response?
• In the classic antistreptolysin O (ASO) test, why should streptolysin O not be rehydrated until it is needed?
• What are macromolecules that elicit the formation of immunoglobulins called?
• What can interfere with the cryptococcal antigen latex agglutination test?
• Why have enzyme immunoassays replaced radioimmunoassays?
• Which cold reacting antibodies are associated with infections caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae?
• What are small polypeptides produced by T cells that help regulate the function of phagocytic cells called?
• What does an elevated O titer in the Widal test suggest?
• Which immune response involves the formation of soluble antigen-antibody complexes?
• Which technique would be best to separate proteins based on their charge and size?
• The RPR antigen needle dispenses how many drops per milliliter?
• Which test for cytomegalovirus has problems with false positives?
• HIV infection is transmitted in all of the following ways EXCEPT which one?
• Which of the following cells is primarily associated with the humoral immune response?
• Which immune response primarily involves IgM production?
• Which substance is considered the primary autoantigen of the thyroid gland?
• Which type of management is essential for patients with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome?
• Complement fixation tests contain which of the following two systems?
• What is the first detectable marker in Hepatitis B infection?
• Which of the following is responsible for the nonspecific killing of tumor cells?
• Which type of immunity relies on the action of lymphocytes and antibodies?
• What type of cells help in the activation and regulation of the immune response?
• Which T cell type specifically acts to kill tumor cells and virally infected cells?
• What is the GAS antigen?
• Which streptococcal extracellular product is known for its ability to break down DNA?
• Which immunoglobulin is primarily responsible for the secondary response to an antigen?
• What complement component is present in the highest concentration in serum?
• Which of the following limits the effectiveness of monoclonal antibodies in hemagglutination assays?
• Which term best describes a small peptide formed during complement activation that causes increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release of histamine from mast cells?
• What role does the complement system play in relation to bacteria and viruses?
• What is commonly measured by flow cytometry to diagnose various immunologic disorders?
• In nontreponemal tests, serum that gives a reactive serological test that is not caused by syphilis results in which one of the following?
• Which streptococcal extracellular product dissolves fibrin clots?
• Which disorder involves a mutation affecting the CD40 ligand, resulting in a distinctive immunodeficiency?
• Which of the following is the cause of chicken pox?
• AIDS patients characteristically show a deficiency in which one of the following?
• Which region of the immunoglobulin is responsible for binding to antigens?
• What phenomenon occurs when an antibody reacts with an antigen that is structurally similar to the original antigen that induced antibody production?
• In which immunological technique does the random movement of antigen or antibody occur to form antigen-antibody complexes in semisolid medium?
• What is the primary significance of the major histocompatibility complex?
• What can enhance the efficiency of monoclonal antibody production?
• In the FTA-ABS test, what serves as the absorbent?
• Which statement regarding the RPR test is true?
• In which sex-linked immunodeficiency disorder is there an absence of plasma cells resulting in the lack of antibody production?
• What does the major histocompatibility complex control?
• What is the antihuman globulin conjugated with in ELISA?
• What type of lymphoid stem cells differentiate in the bone marrow?
• In double radial diffusion, what indicates that the antigens are NOT identical?
• How is a positive patient reaction indicated in a complement fixation test?
• Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection can be diagnosed by which of the following serological tests?
• Based on the results 1:1, 1:2, 1:4, 1:8, 1:16, 1:32, 1:64, what is the antibody titer?
• Which antigen plays a crucial role in the somatic antigenic grouping of enteric bacteria?
• Which complement complex is known as the membrane attack unit?
• In the immunoglobulin structure, which region contains the disulfide bridge?
• Fc is which fragment of the antibody molecule?
• Which of the following is not an external defense mechanism of natural immunity?
• What is the incubation temperature for patient samples in the cold agglutinin test?
• Which complement component of the recognition phase is the first component to bind to the immunoglobulin?
• Which process is used to prepare monoclonal antibodies?
• Cold agglutinins may develop after an infection induced by which of the following organisms?
• Which infection is commonly associated with DiGeorge syndrome due to impaired T-cell function?
• Which response type would typically take longer to develop upon first exposure to an antigen?
• What clinical condition is most commonly associated with elevated ASO titers?
• The J chain is associated with which immunoglobulins?
• Which of the following syndromes involves a deficiency in both humoral and cellular immunity due to a genetic defect in T and B cell functions?
• Which one of the statements concerning IgM is NOT true?
• In which immunological technique are antigen and antibody both free to move toward each other to form a precipitate?
• Which of the following is considered a class I gene product?
• Which of the following factors does NOT play a role in complement activation?
• What is the stability of the VDRL antigen suspension?
• Which of the following proteins are NOT class II gene products?
• Which white blood cells migrate to tissues and differentiate into macrophages?
• What is the primary purpose of the Davidsohn heterophil antibody test?
• What occurs when an antibody binds to its specific antigen?
• What type of immune response do plasma cells primarily contribute to?
• Why might someone prefer monoclonal antibodies over polyclonal antibodies?
• What is another name for one-dimensional single electroimmunodiffusion?
• Which immunological technique uses tagged antibodies to detect specific antigens?
• Which of the following is a proteolytic enzyme that fragments IgG in three fragments?
• What is the primary function of Factor D in the complement system?
• Which of the following methods has a high degree of specificity when typing the herpes simplex virus (HSV)?
• At what speed and duration does the RPR test need to be rotated?
• Which test for syphilis utilizes plastic-coated cards?
• What indicates a positive reaction in the heterophil antibody test?
• Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies are primarily linked to which autoimmune disease?
• What is the basic immunoglobulin structure?
• Which one of the following complement components is NOT involved in the alternative pathway?
• In double radial diffusion, which observation indicates that the antigens are identical?
• What type of defense is characterized by skin and mucus membranes?
• The optimal ratio, when the most antibody is precipitated by the least amount of antigen, is referred to as?
• Which immunoglobulin is able to cross the placenta?
• What type of antibody does the rheumatoid factor (RF) specifically target?
• What is the role of lymphokines in the immune system?
• Which immunoglobulin is predominant in body secretions?
• Which of the following represents the relative concentration of immunoglobulins in decreasing order in normal serum?
• What reaction occurs between the antigen and the antibody in the VDRL test?
• What type of immunity is demonstrated by having an elevated temperature during an infection?
• How much should saline needles for the quantitative VDRL test deliver?
• What type of tests involve antigens located on red blood cells (RBCs)?
• Which factor is crucial in the stability of the VDRL antigen suspension?
• How is the serum titer in the antistreptolysin O (ASO) test reported?
• The antibody class is determined by the antigenic variation primarily found in which region?
• What factor is crucial for determining a positive reaction in the heterophil antibody assay?
• Which of the following is the most efficient agglutinin?
• Which of the following is considered a primary lymphoid organ?
• Which class of gene products is associated with HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C?
• After an antibody has been fragmented by papain, which term denotes the antigen-binding fragment?
• Why are monoclonal antibodies unsuitable for complement fixation tests?
• Which of the following is a requirement for the Treponema pallidum immobilization test?
• Which cells are primarily responsible for the differentiation of B cells?
• In diagnosing which fungal disease is a titer greater than 1:512 required?
• Which type of cells are the first responders to sites of infection?
• Which of the following is a good screening test for determining immunity to the rubella virus?
• What does flocculation indicate in serological testing?
• Cross-reactivity can primarily complicate which types of serological tests?
• How many subclasses of IgG are there?
• What is the key characteristic of streptokinase among streptococcal products?
• What happens during the zone of equivalence in immunology?
• Measurement of serum levels of which immunoglobulin can serve as a screening test for allergies?
• T cells are primarily involved in which type of immunity?
• What does an elevated level of C-reactive protein in serum typically indicate?
• Which component is typically agglutinated during the heterophil antibody test for infectious mononucleosis?
• Which type of agglutinins are being measured in the Widal test?
• What is the lifelong function of memory B cells?
• What is the Weil-Felix test primarily used to detect?
• In the VDRL test, what role does cardiolipin serve?
• In CIE, an electrophoretically abnormal protein displaced from the normal position may be recognized by which pattern?
• What is the most abundant plasma immunoglobulin?
• Which antigen class does HLA-DR belong to?
• The Davidsohn differential test employs which type of blood cells?
• Which fluorochrome is known to give a minimal false reading?
• What is the primary role of IgA in the immune response?
• In the complement fixation test, what result is expected from a positive control?
• Which substance enhances effective phagocytosis?
• If the interval between heating serum for the VDRL test and testing exceeds 4 hours, how long should the serum be reheated for?
• A combination of electrophoresis and double immunodiffusion is referred to as which immunological technique?
• What is the principle of the antistreptolysin O (ASO) tube test?
• What type of immunity do antibodies primarily mediate?
• Which of the following is a key function of class II gene products?
• What is the indicator used in the complement fixation test?
• What term describes the binding strength of an antibody for an antigen?
• Which of the following is NOT a streptococcal extracellular product?
• What is the function of the antibody conjugate in the FTA-ABS test?
• Which immunoglobulin class is associated with allergic reactions?
• Which antigens are associated with the OX19 and OX2 strains?
• Which condition is often confused with HIV/AIDS due to its effect on the immune system?
• Hepatitis vaccination for healthcare workers protects against which viral agent(s)?
• In which technique is the antiserum applied directly to the plate using strips of agarose or cellulose acetate?
• What condition is characterized by immune deficiency and is associated with thrombocytopenia present at birth?
• Which factor does NOT affect antigen-antibody binding?
• Which class of immunoglobulin is thought to function as an antigenic receptor site on the surface of B lymphocytes?
• What factor increases the likelihood of non-specific reactions in nontreponemal tests?
• Which immune response is mediated by antibodies?
• If the VDRL test shows small clumps of antigen with many free particles, how should it be reported?
• What is the most commonly performed confirmatory method for HIV infection?
• Which type of cells are categorized as thymus-dependent?
• Which type of red blood cells are utilized in the Paul-Bunnell heterophil antibody test?
• What bodily fluid is primarily assessed in the ASO test?
• Which immunoglobulin class is the first to appear in the primary immune response?
• Which immunoglobulin plays a role in hypersensitivity?
• What is the general treatment approach for a patient diagnosed with post streptococcal complications?
• Which type of immunity involves the involvement of B lymphocytes?
• Natural immunity is primarily associated with which of the following features?
• What type of immunodeficiency is typically characterized by normal T cell activity paired with absent or reduced antibody responses?
• The Mantoux skin test is an example of which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
• Which fluorochrome is used in fluorescent staining techniques to identify microorganisms rapidly?
• What is the risk associated with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome in males?